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* JML MOCK EXAMINATION SERIES *
IP-Joint Masters / LL.M. Admission Test — MOCK
Pattern-matched to JML 2024 PYQ · Difficulty: Advanced
100
100
120 min
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PAPER STRUCTURE Section A — English (Q.1 – Q.30): Vocabulary, Grammar, RC. Section B — Legal Reasoning (Q.31 – Q.60): Core Law Subjects. Section C — IPR Law (Q.61 – Q.100): Patents, TM, Copyright, GI.
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SECTION AEnglishQ.1 – Q.30 · 30 Marks
Reading Comprehension · Q.1 – Q.6
Directions (Q.1 – Q.6): Read the passage carefully and answer strictly from what is stated or directly implied in the passage.
The modern intellectual property regime emerged from a peculiar bargain struck between the creator and the state. In exchange for a limited monopoly, the inventor or author surrendered what would otherwise have been perpetual, if precarious, secrecy. This compromise — codified in the Statute of Anne (1710) for copyright and the Statute of Monopolies (1624) for patents — rested on an assumption that has lately grown contentious: that without such protection, creative and inventive labour would dwindle to insufficiency.
For most of the twentieth century, this assumption seemed unassailable. Patent-heavy industries such as pharmaceuticals and semiconductors appeared to require massive upfront investment that no rational actor would undertake without assurance of downstream reward. Copyright, meanwhile, was thought to protect the starving author from the piratical publisher. Yet the digital age has eroded these certainties with surprising rapidity. Open-source software, produced without any prospect of proprietary return, now underpins much of the world's computing infrastructure. Wikipedia, written gratis by legions of anonymous contributors, has routed its commercially produced rivals.
Critics contend that intellectual property, far from incentivising creation, frequently obstructs it. Patent thickets — dense webs of overlapping claims — can paralyse entire fields; copyright terms extended to seventy years beyond the author's death do nothing to encourage composition from the grave. Defenders counter that, whatever the excesses at the margins, the core bargain remains sound: the promise of protection, even if rarely collected, is what lures capital into long-odds research. Without it, they insist, no firm would spend the billion dollars required to shepherd a new drug through regulatory approval.
The debate is unlikely to yield quickly. But it exposes an awkward truth about intellectual property: unlike tangible property, whose utility diminishes upon sharing, information is non-rivalrous — one person's consumption leaves another's undiminished. To restrict access to it is therefore to impose a cost society would not otherwise bear, justified only by the promise of future creation that access restriction induces. Whether that promise is being kept, or merely invoked, is the question that animates every serious critic of the contemporary regime.
Q1. The "peculiar bargain" referred to in the opening paragraph most closely denotes:
(A) an agreement between rival inventors to share patent royalties.(B) the trade-off whereby creators accepted a time-bound monopoly in exchange for public disclosure of their work.(C) a treaty between sovereign states governing cross-border protection of creative works.(D) a private contract between authors and publishers to share the proceeds of piracy.
Q2. The author cites Wikipedia and open-source software primarily to:
(A) celebrate the triumph of non-commercial production over capitalist enterprise.(B) argue that copyright protection should be abolished.(C) unsettle the twentieth-century assumption that creation without proprietary incentive is unviable.(D) demonstrate that the digital age has made intellectual property laws unenforceable.
Q3. Which of the following would the defenders of the intellectual property regime most likely endorse?
(A) Patent thickets are essential for encouraging incremental innovation.(B) The pharmaceutical industry would not invest in new drug development without the prospect of patent protection.(C) Copyright should be made perpetual to fully reward creative effort.(D) Open-source software proves that proprietary protection is always unnecessary.
Q4. As used in the final paragraph, "non-rivalrous" most nearly means that:
(A) its consumers do not compete with one another for market share.(B) consumption by one person does not reduce the amount available to others.(C) it cannot be infringed once lawfully licensed.(D) it is freely substitutable across jurisdictions.
Q5. The remark that copyright terms "extended to seventy years beyond the author's death do nothing to encourage composition from the grave" functions as:
(A) a concession to the defenders of strong copyright.(B) an ironical criticism questioning whether extended post-mortem protection serves its incentive rationale.(C) a legal principle recognised in most modern jurisdictions.(D) a statistical claim requiring empirical verification.
Q6. Which of the following best captures the author's overall stance?
(A) Unequivocal advocacy for the abolition of patents and copyrights.(B) Unreserved defence of the existing intellectual property regime.(C) Balanced skepticism entertaining both defences and criticisms while highlighting an unresolved tension.(D) Indifferent description offering no evaluative framing.
Vocabulary — Synonyms · Q.7 – Q.8
Directions: Choose the word closest in meaning to the word in bold.
Directions: Choose the word most nearly OPPOSITE in meaning.
Q9.EPHEMERAL
(A) Transient(B) Fleeting(C) Permanent(D) Feeble
Q10.MAGNANIMOUS
(A) Generous(B) Petty(C) Grandiose(D) Impartial
Grammar — Sentence Correction · Q.11 – Q.12
Q11. Neither the judges nor the petitioner were willing to concede that the appeal had become infructuous in view of the legislative amendment.
(A) was willing to concede that the appeal had become infructuous(B) were willing to concede that the appeal became infructuous(C) was willing to concede that the appeal has become infructuous(D) were willing to concede that the appeal will become infructuous
Q12. The committee, along with its external consultants, have submitted their report yesterday to the Registrar.
(A) have submitted its report yesterday(B) has submitted its report yesterday(C) has been submitting its report yesterday(D) submitted its report yesterday
Grammar — Error Identification · Q.13
Q13. Identify the INCORRECT sentence(s):
a. The number of patent applications filed this year are significantly higher than last year.b. Each of the litigants was asked to submit their affidavit within a week.c. Hardly had the judgment been pronounced when the appellant filed a review petition.d. One of the witnesses have turned hostile, affecting the prosecution's case.
(A) a and d only(B) a, b and d(C) b and c(D) c and d
Grammar — Sentence Rearrangement · Q.14 – Q.15
Q14. Rearrange the parts:
a. which is granted for a limited periodb. a patent is an exclusive rightc. in respect of a new inventiond. as a quid pro quo for its public disclosure
(A) b-a-c-d(B) b-c-a-d(C) c-b-d-a(D) a-b-c-d
Q15. Rearrange the parts:
a. the doctrine of precedentb. rests on the twin pillars of certainty and equalityc. in common-law jurisdictionsd. also known as stare decisis
(A) a-d-c-b(B) c-a-b-d(C) a-d-b-c(D) d-a-c-b
Grammar — Word Usage · Q.16 – Q.17
Q16. Select the sentence using PRECEDENT correctly:
(A) The President will precedent over the swearing-in ceremony.(B) The judges precedent their judgment with a factual summary.(C) The Supreme Court's ruling set a binding precedent for all lower courts.(D) He was precedent in his refusal to accept the compromise.
Q17. Select the sentence using COUNSEL correctly:
(A) The city counsel met on Tuesday to discuss the budget.(B) The parties were advised by experienced senior counsel before filing the suit.(C) I will counsel the money from my savings account tomorrow.(D) The counsel of ministers was dissolved by the Governor.
Grammar — Incorrect Idiom Usage · Q.18
Q18. Identify the sentence where the bolded idiom is used INCORRECTLY:
(A) The witness's testimony threw cold water on the prosecution's theory of the case.(B) After years of dormancy, the old dispute was raised from the dead by the counter-claim.(C) The counsel tried to beat about the bush and address the court's objections head-on.(D) The settlement negotiations finally broke the ice between the estranged partners.
Grammar — Reported Speech · Q.19 – Q.20
Q19. The judge said to the accused, "Why did you not disclose this fact earlier?"
(A) The judge asked the accused why he had not disclosed that fact earlier.(B) The judge asked the accused why did he not disclose this fact earlier.(C) The judge told the accused that why he did not disclose this fact earlier.(D) The judge asked the accused that he did not disclose this fact earlier.
Q20. She exclaimed, "What an ingenious interpretation of Section 8 this is!"
(A) She exclaimed that what an ingenious interpretation of Section 8 that was.(B) She exclaimed that it is a very ingenious interpretation of Section 8.(C) She exclaimed with delight that it was a very ingenious interpretation of Section 8.(D) She said that it has been an ingenious interpretation of Section 8.
Grammar — Passive Voice · Q.21 – Q.22
Q21. "The Registrar is issuing a public notice under Section 21." Choose the best passive form:
(A) A public notice is issued under Section 21 by the Registrar.(B) A public notice is being issued under Section 21 by the Registrar.(C) A public notice has been issued under Section 21 by the Registrar.(D) A public notice was being issued under Section 21 by the Registrar.
Q22. "Who will draft the amended specification?" Choose the best passive form:
(A) By whom will the amended specification be drafted?(B) By whom the amended specification will draft?(C) Who will the amended specification be drafted by?(D) The amended specification will be drafted by whom?
Vocabulary — One-Word Substitution · Q.23 – Q.24
Q23. Choose the word that best substitutes: "A book, writing or symbol reproduced to imitate an original work with intent to defraud"
(A) Facsimile(B) Forgery(C) Anthology(D) Pastiche
Q24. Choose the word that best substitutes: "The power of a court to hear and decide a case"
Q25. Correct the preposition: "The Controller took cognizance on the pre-grant opposition filed by the third party."
(A) at(B) of(C) for(D) upon
Q26. Correct the preposition: "The defendant was charged for infringing the registered trade mark of the plaintiff."
(A) with(B) of(C) against(D) on
Idioms & Phrases · Q.27 – Q.29
Q27."To throw in the towel"
(A) To begin a new venture(B) To concede defeat and give up(C) To signal the start of a fight(D) To clean up after a mess
Q28."A Pyrrhic victory"
(A) A decisive, overwhelming win(B) A victory obtained by deceit(C) A victory won at such heavy cost that the winner is effectively ruined(D) A minor victory celebrated disproportionately
Q29."To gild the lily"
(A) To add superfluous ornamentation to something already beautiful or perfect(B) To conceal a flaw with careful craft(C) To give someone an undeserved gift(D) To accept something in lieu of cash
Legal Latin · Q.30
Q30. The Latin phrase "actus non facit reum, nisi mens sit rea" means:
(A) An act is presumed criminal unless proved otherwise.(B) An act does not make one guilty unless the mind is also guilty.(C) The law does not concern itself with trifles.(D) One cannot be punished twice for the same offence.
SECTION BLegal ReasoningQ.31 – Q.60 · 30 Marks
Directions (Q.31 – Q.60): Each question is based on a legal principle (sometimes more than one) followed by a factual situation. Apply the principle strictly to the facts and select the MOST legally appropriate answer. Do not rely on general notions of fairness.
Q31. [Contract Law]
Principle: An agreement without consideration is void, save in certain excepted cases — including a promise, made in writing and signed by the person to be charged, to pay a time-barred debt.
Facts: In 2014, Virendra borrowed ₹5,00,000 from Dinesh. The limitation period expired in 2017. In December 2024, Virendra wrote to Dinesh: "I acknowledge the loan of 2014 and undertake to discharge the same within six months." The letter was signed by Virendra. Dinesh sues in 2025.
(A) Suit fails; original debt was barred by limitation and cannot be revived.(B) Suit succeeds; a signed written promise to pay a time-barred debt is a recognised exception to the consideration rule.(C) Suit fails; no fresh consideration for the 2024 promise.(D) Suit succeeds only for half the amount.
Q32. [Contract Law]
Principle: Acceptance must be absolute and unqualified. A conditional acceptance, or one that alters the terms, operates as a counter-offer and terminates the original offer.
Facts: On 1 April, Kavita offered to sell her sitar to Rohan for ₹80,000, open till 10 April. On 5 April, Rohan wrote: "I accept, provided you also throw in the carrying case." On 7 April, Kavita sold to Imran. On 8 April, Rohan wrote: "Please ignore my earlier reply; I accept unconditionally." Rohan sues.
(A) Kavita is liable; offer was open till the 10th.(B) The 5 April reply was a counter-offer that terminated the original offer; the 8 April letter is a fresh offer that Kavita may accept or reject.(C) Kavita is liable; final acceptance relates back to the date of offer.(D) Rohan may recover damages but not specific performance.
Q33. [Law of Torts]
Principle: A master is vicariously liable for torts of his servant committed in the course of employment. A substantial deviation for a purpose wholly unconnected with the master's business amounts to a "frolic" for which the master is not liable; a mere "detour" does not displace liability.
Facts: Ramesh, a driver for ExpressGoods Ltd., was directed to deliver consignments between two warehouses. On returning, he took a 45-km circular detour into a hill station to meet his girlfriend for lunch. While descending, he negligently collided with Chanda, a pedestrian.
(A) ExpressGoods Ltd. is vicariously liable.(B) Not liable; a 45-km wholly personal detour is a "frolic of his own."(C) Jointly liable with Ramesh.(D) Chanda can recover only on proof of independent employer negligence.
Q34. [Criminal Law]
Principle: Nothing is an offence which is done by a person who, by reason of unsoundness of mind, is incapable of knowing the nature of the act, or that what he is doing is either wrong or contrary to law.
Facts: Neelam, suffering from paranoid schizophrenia, believed her neighbour was an alien sent to abduct her children. In an acute delusion, she killed the neighbour with a kitchen knife. She then tried to hide the weapon and said she did "what had to be done to save the kids." Psychiatric evidence confirmed an active psychotic episode.
(A) Guilty of murder; concealment shows consciousness of wrongfulness.(B) Can plead unsoundness of mind; under acute delusion she was incapable of knowing the act was contrary to law, even if she took mechanical concealment steps.(C) Guilty of culpable homicide not amounting to murder.(D) Defence fails as she acted upon a pre-formed plan.
Q35. [Constitutional Law]
Principle: The doctrine of eclipse provides that a pre-Constitution law inconsistent with fundamental rights is not void ab initio; it remains in eclipse and becomes operative again if the constitutional inconsistency is removed by a later amendment.
Facts: A 1935 provincial Act became inconsistent with Article 19(1)(g) in 1950. In 2024, a constitutional amendment inserted a saving clause validating such provincial laws. The 1935 Act has not been re-enacted.
(A) Permanently dead; only fresh enactment can revive it.(B) Revived by the 2024 amendment, operative from the date of the amendment.(C) Revives retrospectively to 1950.(D) Was never eclipsed, only suspended.
Q36. [Administrative Law]
Principle:Audi alteram partem is ordinarily essential. Where the statute excludes it, or where genuine urgency would make pre-decisional notice self-defeating, the rule may be excluded, though a post-decisional hearing may cure the gap.
Facts: The Food Safety Commissioner, on an anonymous tip and a lab test showing dangerously high microbial contamination, immediately sealed a restaurant's kitchen without notice. Five days later, the owner was heard and the order was upheld.
(A) Order is void ab initio.(B) Pre-decisional notice not required due to public-health urgency; the post-decisional hearing substantially satisfies natural justice.(C) Natural justice cannot be complied with retrospectively.(D) Order stands only if the statute expressly excludes natural justice.
Q37. [Contract — Misrepresentation]
Principle: A party induced by misrepresentation may rescind. The right is lost by (i) affirmation with knowledge; (ii) impossibility of restitution; (iii) third-party bona fide purchase for value.
Facts: Sameer bought a vintage motorcycle from Tara on Tara's innocent misrepresentation that it was a 1958 model (actually 1968). Three weeks later, he discovered the truth. The next day he took it for a tune-up and told a friend: "I'll keep it anyway — it rides beautifully." Two days later he changed his mind and purported to rescind.
(A) Rescission available; period is short.(B) Rescission barred by affirmation; the statement to the friend with knowledge is an election to affirm.(C) Rescission available absent a third-party purchaser.(D) Rescission barred only by impossibility of restitution.
Q38. [Criminal — Common Intention]
Principle: Where a criminal act is done by several persons in furtherance of their common intention, each is liable as if done by him alone. Common intention requires a meeting of minds anterior to the act.
Facts: Arjun and Bheem, intending only to beat up Vikram over a money dispute, attacked him with sticks in a dark alley. During the assault, Arjun, losing self-control, picked up a heavy stone and struck Vikram on the head, killing him. Bheem took no part in the stone-throwing and was seen to recoil.
(A) Both guilty of murder; common intention covers the ultimate act.(B) Both guilty only of hurt.(C) Bheem liable for the original assault only; Arjun individually liable for the fatal blow since it exceeded the common intention.(D) Both jointly guilty of grievous hurt.
Q39. [Tort — Medical Negligence]
Principle: Negligence requires (i) duty; (ii) breach; (iii) damage caused by breach; (iv) not too remote. Standard = reasonable person in the circumstances.
Facts: Dr. Mehta, a general physician, prescribed standard paracetamol to patient P with mild fever. P had a rare genetic condition (1 in 2,00,000) making paracetamol acutely hepatotoxic. The condition is not screened for in routine practice; Dr. Mehta's history-taking met the ordinary GP standard.
(A) Liable; he prescribed the drug that caused damage.(B) Liable under strict liability.(C) Not liable; he acted by the standard of a reasonable GP, and a 1-in-2,00,000 condition is not reasonably foreseeable.(D) Liable for 50% contributory negligence.
Q40. [Evidence — Privilege]
Principle: Client-lawyer communications for professional purpose are privileged. The privilege does not protect communications in furtherance of an illegal purpose or used to complete/conceal a fraud.
Facts: Ajay consulted his lawyer, Ms. Chopra, on a property sale. He casually said: "I forged my uncle's signature last month to get this property transferred to me; I want to sell quickly before anyone notices." The prosecution seeks to examine Ms. Chopra.
(A) Privileged; Ms. Chopra cannot be compelled to testify.(B) The privilege does not protect communications in furtherance of fraud where the lawyer's services are sought to complete it; Ms. Chopra may be examined.(C) Privileged unless waived in writing.(D) Privilege applies only to court proceedings.
Q41. [Assertion-Reason]
Assertion (A): Under the Indian Contract Act, an agreement in restraint of trade is void.
Reason (R): The only statutory exception is sale of goodwill, where the seller may agree not to carry on a similar business within specified local limits, so long as the restraint is reasonable.
(A) Both A and R true, R correctly explains A.(B) Both A and R true, R does NOT correctly explain A.(C) A is true, R is false.(D) A is false, R is true.
Q42. [Assertion-Reason]
Assertion (A): The rule in Rylands v. Fletcher imposes liability without proof of negligence for damage caused by the escape of a dangerous thing in non-natural use of land.
Reason (R): The rule admits no exceptions whatsoever, making it absolute liability in the strictest sense.
(A) Both A and R true, R correctly explains A.(B) Both A and R true, R does NOT correctly explain A.(C) A is true, R is false.(D) A is false, R is true.
I. The doctrine applies only to Central legislation.II. The doctrine looks at the substance (pith and substance) of the law, not merely its form.III. It strikes down legislation that, in substance, encroaches upon a field reserved by the Constitution for another legislature.IV. Legislative motive or bad faith is required to invoke the doctrine.
Which are CORRECT?
(A) I and II only(B) II and III only(C) II, III and IV only(D) I, II, III and IV
Q45. [Tort — Thin-Skull]
Principle I: A defendant is liable only for damage that is the reasonably foreseeable consequence of his breach. Principle II: Under the "thin-skull" rule, the defendant takes his victim as he finds him; once a foreseeable kind of injury is caused, the defendant is liable for the full extent even if exacerbated by unusual susceptibility.
Facts: Due to the defendant's negligent handling of a heater, a drop of molten metal struck the plaintiff on the lip, producing a minor burn. The burn activated a pre-existing unknown cancer; the plaintiff eventually died of cancer.
(A) Not liable; cancer was not foreseeable.(B) Liable for the burn only.(C) Liable for the full extent, including cancer and death, under the thin-skull rule.(D) Liable for 50% only.
Q46. [Contract — Damages]
Principle: Damages cover (i) damages arising naturally from the breach; (ii) special damages that were in the contemplation of both parties at the time of contracting.
Facts: Sushma, a baker, handed her only industrial mixer to a repair shop, which negligently delayed return by a week. She claims: (i) ordinary weekly profits; and (ii) a one-off ₹3 lakh wedding-cake contract she could not fulfil. She had not disclosed the wedding contract.
(A) Both recoverable.(B) Only (i) recoverable; (ii), being special and undisclosed, was not within contemplation.(C) Only (ii) recoverable.(D) Neither recoverable absent an express damages clause.
Q47. [Criminal — Private Defence]
Principle: The right of private defence of body extends to causing death only where the offence reasonably causes apprehension of death, grievous hurt, rape, kidnapping or similar specified offences. Force must not exceed necessity.
Facts: Two unarmed men attempted to snatch Savita's handbag in a busy street during the day. When one pushed her slightly, she drew a licensed pistol and shot both dead at point-blank range. No evidence either was armed or had threatened her life.
(A) Complete defence; self-defence.(B) Exceeded the right; guilty of culpable homicide not amounting to murder — a bag-snatching push does not reasonably apprehend death/grievous hurt justifying killing.(C) Guilty of murder without mitigation.(D) No offence; street robbery justifies lethal force.
Q48. [Constitutional — Reasonable Classification]
Principle: Article 14 permits reasonable classification if (i) based on intelligible differentia and (ii) having rational nexus with the object of the statute. Article 15(3) permits special provisions for women.
Facts: A State statute provides free bus travel to women government employees only, citing "women's mobility and safety" as the object. An Article 14 challenge is brought.
(A) Unconstitutional; men and women employees are similarly situated.(B) Constitutional; sex is intelligible differentia with rational nexus, and Article 15(3) permits special provisions for women.(C) Unconstitutional; economic benefits cannot be sex-based.(D) Constitutional only if extended to all women citizens.
Q49. [Partnership Law]
Principle: The act of a partner done to carry on the firm's usual business in the usual way binds the firm, unless the partner has no authority AND the third party knows this or does not know/believe him to be a partner.
Facts: Anand, Bina and Chetan are partners in a retail textile firm. Without the others' knowledge, Anand borrows ₹10 lakh from Kapil, a finance officer, claiming it is for firm purposes — but gambles it away. Kapil was aware of a public notice in a regional newspaper stating Anand's borrowing authority had been expressly withdrawn by the firm.
(A) Firm bound; borrowing is ordinarily within implied authority.(B) Firm not bound; Kapil had knowledge of the restriction, so ostensible authority fails.(C) Firm bound only for half.(D) Only Anand is liable; the firm cannot be sued.
Q50. [Multi-Statement — Basic Structure]
Consider Kesavananda Bharati and after:
I. Parliament has unlimited power to amend any part of the Constitution, including its basic structure.II. The doctrine is a judicial creation not expressly mentioned in the text of the Constitution.III. Rule of law, judicial review, and democracy have been identified as elements of the basic structure.IV. A constitutional amendment violating the basic structure can be struck down by the courts.
Which are CORRECT?
(A) I, II and III only(B) II, III and IV only(C) I, III and IV only(D) I and IV only
Q51. [Tort — Defamation]
Principle: Fair comment on a matter of public interest is a defence if the comment is honest, based on true facts, and recognisable as comment. A false allegation of fact is NOT protected by fair comment.
Facts: A TV journalist said on air: "In my opinion, Minister X is an incompetent administrator." In the same broadcast she also said: "He personally accepted a bribe of ₹50 lakh from a contractor last month." The Minister sues.
(A) Both statements are protected as fair comment.(B) The first is protected opinion; the second is a specific factual assertion not protected by fair comment and actionable unless the journalist proves its truth.(C) Neither is protected; public figures enjoy no protection.(D) Ministers are absolutely immune.
Q52. [Contract — Quasi-Contract]
Principle: Where a person lawfully does anything for another, not intending to do so gratuitously, and such other person enjoys the benefit thereof, the latter must compensate or restore.
Facts: Harish, a farmer, found Shyam's escaped cattle grazing on his field. He fed and sheltered them for ten days at his expense, then returned them. He claims ₹5,000. Shyam refuses, saying he neither requested nor promised payment.
(A) No liability; no contract.(B) Shyam must compensate; the act was lawful, non-gratuitous, and the owner enjoyed the benefit — quasi-contractual obligation arises.(C) Harish is entitled only to a charge over the cattle.(D) Harish is liable for trespass.
Q53. [Criminal — Abetment]
Principle: A person abets who (i) instigates another to do a thing, (ii) conspires for it, or (iii) intentionally aids it. Mere presence, without more, does not amount to abetment.
Facts: Vikrant walked past two drunken men quarrelling. He stopped and said to one: "If you had any courage, you would have thrashed him by now." The man then attacked and seriously injured his adversary.
(A) Not liable; a passing remark.(B) Abetted by instigation; the taunt incited the act.(C) Liable only for public nuisance.(D) Abetment requires prior conspiracy.
Q54. [Administrative — Legitimate Expectation]
Principle: A legitimate expectation from an express promise or consistent past practice must be honoured unless overridden by compelling public interest, and at the minimum requires a fair hearing before frustration.
Facts: By a widely published 2019 circular, the State committed to renewing industrial subsidies to existing SSIs for a five-year block. In 2023, citing fiscal constraints shown in an audit report, the Government unilaterally discontinued subsidies a year early without hearings.
(A) Government may change policy at will; no legitimate expectation.(B) Units had a legitimate expectation; fiscal constraints may justify withdrawal but procedural fairness requires at least a pre-decisional hearing.(C) Legitimate expectation creates a vested legal right to the subsidy forever.(D) Legitimate expectation is not part of Indian administrative law.
Q55. [Evidence — Dying Declaration]
Principle: Hearsay is generally inadmissible, but statements of a person as to the cause of his death, where the cause of that person's death is in question, are admissible as dying declarations.
Facts: In a murder trial, the prosecution seeks to prove V's statement to a police officer at the hospital that "A stabbed me." V died fifteen minutes later. The defence objects on hearsay grounds.
(A) Inadmissible hearsay.(B) Admissible as a dying declaration — a recognised exception to hearsay — going to the cause of death.(C) Admissible only if corroborated.(D) Such statements require notarisation.
Q56. [Assertion-Reason]
Assertion (A): A contract with a minor is void ab initio.
Reason (R): Having attained majority, a person cannot ratify a contract entered during minority; a new contract with fresh consideration is required.
(A) Both A and R true, R correctly explains A.(B) Both A and R true, R does NOT correctly explain A.(C) A is true, R is false.(D) A is false, R is true.
Q57. [Tort — Nuisance]
Principle: Private nuisance is an unreasonable interference with the use and enjoyment of land. "Coming to the nuisance" is not a defence.
Facts: Pranay operated a small generator at his photocopy shop in a commercial street, 9 a.m. to 8 p.m. during load-shedding. Noise at the boundary of the adjacent residential flat measured 62 dB, exceeding the permissible daytime residential limit. The resident, who moved in recently, sued.
(A) No nuisance; commercial activity in a commercial street is permissible.(B) Nuisance established; exceeding statutory noise limits at the residential boundary is unreasonable interference — coming to the nuisance is no defence.(C) No nuisance; a later-moving-in resident has consented.(D) Nuisance requires physical damage.
Q58. [Contract — Postal Rule]
Principle I: Acceptance by post is complete as against the offeror when the acceptance is properly posted, though not yet received. Principle II: An offer may be revoked before the communication of its acceptance is complete as against the offeror, not afterwards.
Facts: On 1 June, Pearl posted an offer to sell her horse to Quincy for ₹1 lakh. Quincy received it on 3 June. On 4 June at 9 a.m., Quincy posted acceptance. At 11 a.m. the same day, Pearl dispatched a revocation by courier, reaching Quincy on 5 June. Quincy's acceptance reached Pearl on 6 June.
(A) No contract; revocation preceded receipt of acceptance.(B) Contract concluded on 4 June at 9 a.m. when acceptance was posted; the later revocation is ineffective against Pearl.(C) Contract concluded on 6 June.(D) No contract; postal rule abolished.
Q59. [Jurisprudence — Match]
Column I (Jurist)
Column II (Idea)
1. John Austin
W. Law as the command of the sovereign backed by sanction
2. H. L. A. Hart
X. Law as a union of primary and secondary rules
3. Roscoe Pound
Y. Law as a tool for social engineering
4. Lon L. Fuller
Z. The inner morality of law and its eight desiderata
Principle: Judicial review is part of the basic structure; it cannot be abrogated by constitutional amendment.
Facts: A constitutional amendment purports to insert Article 323-C, ousting the jurisdiction of all courts including the Supreme Court under Article 32 over tribunal decisions in service disputes. Service employees challenge the amendment.
(A) Valid; Parliament has plenary amending power.(B) Unconstitutional to the extent it ousts judicial review by High Courts under Article 226 and the Supreme Court under Article 32 — violates basic structure.(C) Unconstitutional only if ratified by fewer than half the States.(D) Valid; judicial review is not part of basic structure.
SECTION CIntellectual Property LawQ.61 – Q.100 · 40 Marks
Directions (Q.61 – Q.100): Each question tests Indian IP statutes (Patents Act 1970, Trade Marks Act 1999, Copyright Act 1957, Designs Act 2000, GI Act 1999) and international instruments (Paris, PCT, TRIPS, Berne, Madrid). Select the MOST ACCURATE answer.
Q61. Under the Indian Patents Act, 1970, the term of every patent (post-2005) is:
(A) 14 years from the date of filing.(B) 20 years from the date of filing of the application.(C) 20 years from the date of grant.(D) Life of the patentee plus 20 years.
Q62. [Section 3(d) — Novartis-type]
Facts: A pharma company files a patent for the beta-crystalline form of a known molecule "Imatinib Mesylate," claiming 30% better bioavailability than the amorphous form, but no other therapeutic efficacy difference. The application is opposed under Section 3(d).
(A) Grantable; better bioavailability is a patentable improvement.(B) Refused; mere new form of a known substance not enhancing known therapeutic efficacy is not an invention under Section 3(d); bioavailability alone is insufficient.(C) Grantable as a process patent only.(D) Section 3(d) applies only to food and agrochemicals.
Q63. [Section 84 — Compulsory Licence]
Principle: Section 84 allows application for compulsory licence after 3 years from grant on any of three grounds: (i) reasonable requirements of public not satisfied; (ii) not available at reasonably affordable price; (iii) not worked in India.
Facts: Four years after grant, the patentee of a life-saving cancer drug imports it into India priced at ₹2,80,000/month, supplying only about 2% of demand and not manufacturing in India. An Indian generic manufacturer applies for compulsory licence.
(A) Application fails; the drug is available, though imported.(B) All three Section 84 grounds are made out; compulsory licence is grantable — parallels Bayer v. Natco.(C) Compulsory licensing is not permitted for pharmaceuticals.(D) Only the Central Government can seek a compulsory licence.
Q64. Which of the following is NOT a statutory saving against anticipation under the Patents Act?
(A) Display at an officially notified exhibition, provided the application is filed within 12 months.(B) Communication of the invention to the Government for investigation.(C) Publication of the invention by a competitor in a trade journal three months before the filing date.(D) Public working by way of reasonable trial or experiment.
Q65. Section 8 of the Patents Act requires the applicant to:
(A) Pay annual renewal fees.(B) Furnish information regarding corresponding foreign applications for the same or substantially the same invention.(C) Disclose the source of biological material only.(D) Submit a translation of the complete specification.
Q66. [Section 107A — Bolar]
Principle: Section 107A provides that any act of making/using/selling/importing a patented invention solely for uses reasonably related to development and submission of information required under any law regulating manufacture/sale of products is not an infringement.
Facts: Six months before patent expiry of an anti-hypertensive drug, GenericoPharma commences bioequivalence studies in India to prepare a marketing approval application, to launch on the day of patent expiry. The patentee sues for infringement.
(A) Infringement; any use before expiry constitutes infringement.(B) No infringement; Section 107A squarely protects bioequivalence studies aimed at regulatory submission, even during the patent term.(C) Infringement only if exported.(D) Infringement applies from six months before expiry.
Q67. Under Section 2(zb) Trade Marks Act, a "mark" includes all of the following EXCEPT:
(A) Shape of goods, packaging, combination of colours.(B) A device, brand, heading, label, name, signature, word, letter, numeral.(C) A geographical indication of origin functioning as a generic name for a class of goods.(D) A mark capable of being represented graphically.
Q68. The initial term of trademark registration in India is:
(A) 7 years, renewable for 10.(B) 10 years from application, renewable for further 10-year periods.(C) 14 years, non-renewable.(D) 20 years, renewable indefinitely.
Q69. [Passing Off — Classical Trinity]
Principle: Passing off requires (i) goodwill/reputation; (ii) misrepresentation leading to confusion; (iii) damage or likelihood thereof.
Facts:BombayBrew, an unregistered coffee chain operating in 40 Indian cities for 15 years with substantial media reputation, finds a new chain BombayBrews opening with deceptively similar name and trade dress. Customers believe the two are affiliated.
(A) Suit fails; passing off requires registered trade mark.(B) Suit succeeds; all three elements — reputation, confusion, damage — are made out.(C) Suit succeeds only in cities of operational overlap.(D) Passing off requires fraudulent intent.
Q70. A "well-known trade mark" under Section 11 is protected:
(A) Only in its registered class.(B) Across classes of goods/services — even where not registered — against use on dissimilar goods indicating a connection and detrimental to its distinctive character.(C) Only if used in India for at least 20 years.(D) Only against identical marks on identical goods.
Q71. Which marks would be refused on absolute grounds under Section 9 TM Act?
I. "SOFT" for cotton towels.II. "APPLE" for computer hardware.III. "PURE WATER" for packaged drinking water.IV. "XEROX" for photocopying services (independent fresh use by a third party).
(A) I and III only(B) II and IV only(C) I, II and III(D) All four
Q72. [TM Infringement]
Principle: Marks are compared as wholes, considering visual, phonetic and conceptual similarity from the perspective of a consumer of average intelligence and imperfect recollection, especially in pharmaceuticals.
Facts: "CADILLA" (registered) vs. "CADILA" (used by defendant for similar pharma formulations).
(A) No infringement; one letter's difference is material.(B) Infringement; phonetic and visual similarity on closely related pharma goods creates real likelihood of confusion, given the sensitive nature of medicines.(C) Infringement only on proof of actual confusion.(D) Pharmaceuticals are outside trademark protection.
Q73. Term of copyright in a literary work of a known individual author is:
(A) Life + 50 years.(B) Life + 60 years.(C) Life + 70 years.(D) 60 years from first publication irrespective of life.
Q74. Which is most likely "fair dealing" under Section 52 Copyright Act?
(A) Photocopying an entire textbook for all students of a course.(B) A news broadcast quoting short extracts from a published novel to illustrate a literary review.(C) Uploading the full text of a recent bestseller for free download.(D) Reprinting and selling a collection of copyrighted poems under one's own name.
Q75. Under Section 2(d) Copyright Act, the "author" of a cinematograph film is:
(A) The director.(B) The principal scriptwriter.(C) The producer.(D) The lead actor.
Q76. [Idea-Expression Dichotomy]
Principle: Copyright subsists in the expression, not the idea. Common themes, plots, historical facts and stock situations are in the public domain; only the author's particular expression is protectable.
Facts: Author A wrote a novel about a detective solving a murder at a wedding. Author B later wrote a novel about a different detective solving a different murder at a different wedding, with entirely independent dialogue, sub-plots and characters. A sues B.
(A) Infringement; both concern murder at a wedding.(B) No infringement; common themes, settings and plot devices are not protectable — only the particular expression is.(C) Infringement; novels always share basic structure.(D) Infringement only if A first registered copyright.
Q77. The author's moral rights under Section 57 consist primarily of:
(A) The right to royalties on every public performance.(B) The right of paternity (to claim authorship) and the right of integrity (to restrain or claim damages for distortion/mutilation/modification prejudicial to honour or reputation).(C) The right to revoke assignments without cause.(D) The right to be paid licence fees by the Copyright Board.
Q78. Under Section 2(d) Designs Act 2000, "design" means:
(A) Any mode of construction including underlying functional principle.(B) Only features of shape, configuration, pattern, ornament or composition of lines/colours applied to any article which appeal to and are judged solely by the eye — excluding any mode or principle of construction or anything which is, in substance, a mere mechanical device.(C) A trade mark used with an article.(D) A literary or artistic work reproduced on an article.
Q79. Term of protection of a registered design:
(A) 10 years, non-extendable.(B) 10 years from registration, extendable by a further 5 years on application before expiry.(C) 20 years, renewable indefinitely.(D) Life of the designer + 60 years.
Q80. Under Section 44 Designs Act 2000, priority for a design filed in a Convention country may be claimed in India if filed within:
(A) 6 months from the earliest Convention application.(B) 12 months.(C) 18 months.(D) 24 months.
Q81. A Geographical Indication (GI) under the GI Act, 1999:
(A) Is a sign used on goods having a specific geographical origin and qualities/reputation/characteristics essentially attributable to that origin.(B) Can be owned by a single individual manufacturer.(C) Is granted for 7 years only.(D) Must be a generic name for a class of goods.
(A) 5 years, renewable for further 5-year periods.(B) 10 years, renewable for further 10-year periods.(C) 20 years, non-renewable.(D) Perpetual on registration.
Q84. Under the Paris Convention, 1883, the priority period for a patent is:
(A) Grants a single "world patent" enforceable in every member country.(B) Provides a unified international procedure for filing patent applications; grant remains with each designated national/regional office.(C) Replaces national office examination.(D) Is administered by the WTO.
Q86. National phase entry under the PCT must be made in India within:
(A) 12 months from priority.(B) 18 months from priority.(C) 31 months from priority.(D) 36 months from priority.
Q87. The TRIPS Agreement, 1994:
(A) Advisory only; no binding obligations.(B) Establishes minimum standards of IP protection for WTO members; annexed to the Marrakesh Agreement.(C) Limited to patents only.(D) Makes all IP rights directly enforceable in Indian courts without domestic legislation.
Q88. The Berne Convention, 1886, pertains primarily to:
(A) Industrial property (patents, TMs, designs).(B) Literary and artistic works — copyright and related rights.(C) Deposit of microorganisms.(D) International registration of trademarks.
Q89. The Madrid System relates to:
(A) International registration of trademarks through a single application designating multiple member countries.(B) International deposit of industrial designs.(C) International filing of patents.(D) International protection of GIs.
Q90. A pre-grant opposition under Section 25(1) Patents Act may be filed by:
(A) Any person, at any time after publication of the application and before grant.(B) Only by a competitor within 30 days of filing.(C) Only the Central Government.(D) Only registered patent agents.
Q91. Under Section 3 Patents Act, which is NOT patentable?
I. A new method of performing mental acts.II. A computer programme per se.III. A new chemical compound with demonstrated industrial application.IV. A method of treatment of the human body by surgery.
(A) I, II and III only(B) I, II and IV only(C) II, III and IV only(D) All four
Q92. A registered trade mark may be assigned:
(A) Only with the goodwill of the business.(B) With OR without the goodwill of the business, subject to statutory conditions to prevent public confusion.(C) Only by way of testamentary disposition.(D) Only to another registered proprietor of the same class of goods.
Q93. An assignment of copyright must be:
(A) Oral, corroborated by a witness.(B) In writing, signed by the assignor or his duly authorised agent.(C) Registered with the Copyright Office, failing which void.(D) Executed before a notary public.
Q94. Which of the following is NOT a ground for revocation under Section 64 Patents Act?
(A) The invention is not new (lacks novelty).(B) The invention is obvious / lacks inventive step.(C) The complete specification does not sufficiently and fairly describe the invention.(D) The patentee has earned excessive profits from the patent.
Q95. [Trans-border Reputation]
Principle: Under Indian law, reputation and goodwill of a trade mark can cross territorial borders — use in India is not always a pre-condition where reputation has "spilled over" through advertising, media and travel.
Facts: A globally famous luxury brand "WHITMAN," not sold in India, is extensively advertised in Indian editions of international magazines and carried by Indian travellers from abroad. An Indian trader uses "WHITMAN" for similar leather goods in India. The foreign brand sues for passing off.
(A) Suit fails; use in India is mandatory.(B) Suit succeeds; Indian courts have recognised trans-border/spill-over reputation (N. R. Dongre v. Whirlpool; Milmet Oftho v. Allergan).(C) Passing off unavailable to foreign entities.(D) Suit succeeds only against identical marks.
Q96. A patentee must furnish a working statement (Form 27):
(A) Every three months.(B) Once every financial year.(C) Only on demand by the Controller.(D) Only upon grant of the patent.
Q97. Computer programs are protected under Indian copyright law as:
Principle: Section 39 Patents Act requires an Indian resident to obtain written permission from the Controller before filing a patent application outside India, unless (i) an application for the same invention has been filed in India at least six weeks before the foreign filing and no secrecy directions have been issued, or (ii) the invention relates to matters for which permission is not required.
Facts: Dr. Veena, an Indian resident at an IIT lab, makes a novel discovery in biotechnology. Eager to be first, she files a US patent application without filing in India and without Controller's permission. Three weeks later, she files in India.
(A) No issue; residents may file anywhere first.(B) She has contravened Section 39; the Indian application may be deemed abandoned and she may face penalties under Sections 40/118. Written permission or prior India filing with six-week wait was required.(C) Section 39 applies only to nuclear inventions.(D) The violation is automatically cured by the later Indian filing.
Q100. [Domain Names & TMs — Multi-Statement]
I. Registration of a domain name identical/deceptively similar to a well-known mark, with intent to sell it back, constitutes cybersquatting and is actionable.II. Indian courts have extended passing-off principles to domain-name disputes.III. A domain name that is merely descriptive of the services offered can never be a trade mark.IV. The INDRP (.IN Dispute Resolution Policy) provides an administrative remedy for abusive .IN registrations.
Which are CORRECT?
(A) I, II and IV only(B) I, II, III and IV(C) I, III and IV only(D) II and IV only
Answer Key
* QUICK-REFERENCE GRID · 100 MCQs *
Q1B
Q2C
Q3B
Q4B
Q5B
Q6C
Q7B
Q8C
Q9C
Q10B
Q11A
Q12D
Q13B
Q14B
Q15C
Q16C
Q17B
Q18C
Q19A
Q20C
Q21B
Q22A
Q23B
Q24A
Q25B
Q26A
Q27B
Q28C
Q29A
Q30B
Q31B
Q32B
Q33B
Q34B
Q35B
Q36B
Q37B
Q38C
Q39C
Q40B
Q41C
Q42C
Q43A
Q44B
Q45C
Q46B
Q47B
Q48B
Q49B
Q50B
Q51B
Q52B
Q53B
Q54B
Q55B
Q56B
Q57B
Q58B
Q59A
Q60B
Q61B
Q62B
Q63B
Q64C
Q65B
Q66B
Q67C
Q68B
Q69B
Q70B
Q71A
Q72B
Q73B
Q74B
Q75C
Q76B
Q77B
Q78B
Q79B
Q80A
Q81A
Q82D
Q83B
Q84B
Q85B
Q86C
Q87B
Q88B
Q89A
Q90A
Q91B
Q92B
Q93B
Q94D
Q95B
Q96B
Q97B
Q98A
Q99B
Q100A
Section A — English · Detailed Solutions (Q.1 – Q.30)
Q1."Peculiar bargain"Ans: B
The opening paragraph states creators surrendered secrecy in exchange for a limited monopoly — the classical patent/copyright trade-off. (A), (C), (D) introduce elements (royalty sharing, treaty, author-publisher contracts) not in the passage.
Q2.Wikipedia & open-sourceAns: C
Paragraph 2 uses these to show the 20th-century assumption — "no creation without proprietary incentive" — has been eroded. (A) is too strong; (B) overstates; (D) misreads (it is about incentives, not enforceability).
Q3.Defenders' viewAns: B
Paragraph 3: defenders argue "no firm would spend the billion dollars" without protection — precisely (B). (A) is a criticism. (C) is an extreme position not attributed to defenders.
Q4."Non-rivalrous"Ans: B
The passage itself defines: "one person's consumption leaves another's undiminished" — the economic definition of a non-rivalrous good.
Q5."Composition from the grave"Ans: B
Clearly ironical — dead authors cannot be incentivised, so the 70-year post-mortem extension cannot serve the usual incentive rationale. It functions as a criticism.
Q6.Author's stanceAns: C
Author lays out both sides and closes with an unresolved question ("whether that promise is being kept, or merely invoked") — balanced skepticism.
Q7.PERSPICACIOUSAns: B
Perspicacious = keen mental discernment/insight. Discerning is the synonym. (A) relates to sweat; (C) = talkative; (D) = rude.
Q8.OBFUSCATEAns: C
Obfuscate = render obscure/unclear/confusing. Bewilder is closest. (A) Clarify is the opposite.
Q9.EPHEMERAL (antonym)Ans: C
Ephemeral = short-lived, fleeting. Opposite = Permanent. (A) and (B) are synonyms.
Q10.MAGNANIMOUS (antonym)Ans: B
Magnanimous = generous/noble-spirited, especially in forgiving. Opposite = Petty. (A) is a synonym.
Q11.Neither/nor + SVAns: A
With "neither...nor," the verb agrees with the nearer subject. "The petitioner" is singular → "was willing." The original tense ("had become") is correctly retained.
Q12.Committee + along withAns: D
"Along with its external consultants" is parenthetical and doesn't alter the singular subject (the committee). With "yesterday," simple past is required. (D) "submitted its report yesterday" is the cleanest fix — correct tense + correct singular pronoun. (B) uses present perfect, incompatible with "yesterday."
Q13.Error spottingAns: B
a — wrong: "The number of..." takes singular ("is," not "are"). b — wrong: "Each" is singular → "his/her affidavit," not "their." c — correct: "Hardly had...when" inversion is correct. d — wrong: "One of the witnesses" — subject is "one" (singular) → "has." So a, b, d → (B).
Q14.Rearrangement — patentAns: B
b (subject) → c ("in respect of a new invention") → a (relative clause) → d (rationale). Reads: "A patent is an exclusive right in respect of a new invention, which is granted for a limited period, as a quid pro quo for its public disclosure."
Q15.Rearrangement — stare decisisAns: C
a (subject) → d (appositive "also known as stare decisis") → b (predicate) → c (prepositional phrase). "The doctrine of precedent, also known as stare decisis, rests on the twin pillars of certainty and equality in common-law jurisdictions."
Q16."Precedent" usageAns: C
Precedent (n.) = earlier decision serving as authority. Only (C) uses it correctly. (A) confuses with "preside"; (B) uses it as a verb wrongly; (D) confuses with "insistent."
Q17."Counsel" vs. "council"Ans: B
Counsel = legal advice or advocates; council = a body. Only (B) uses "counsel" correctly. (A) should be "council"; (D) should be "Council of Ministers."
Q18.Incorrect idiomAns: C
"Beat about the bush" means to avoid the point — the opposite of "address head-on." The sentence self-contradicts. The other idioms are used correctly.
Q19.Reported WH-questionAns: A
A reported WH-question retains the WH-word, drops inversion, and shifts tense backward (past simple → past perfect). "This fact" → "that fact." Only (A) does all three correctly.
Q20.Reported exclamationAns: C
Reported exclamations typically use a reporting verb expressing emotion ("exclaimed with delight"), drop "What a..." in favour of "a very...," introduce with "that," and shift tense ("is" → "was"). Only (C) does all three.
Q21.Active → passive (present continuous)Ans: B
"Is issuing" → "is being issued" (present continuous passive). Only (B) preserves tense.
Q22.Passive of WH-questionAns: A
"Who will draft X?" (future simple active) → "By whom will X be drafted?" — standard passive of a WH-question.
Q23.ForgeryAns: B
Forgery = imitation with intent to defraud. (A) Facsimile = faithful copy (no intent to defraud); (C) Anthology = collection of literary pieces; (D) Pastiche = stylistic imitation, often affectionate.
Q24.JurisdictionAns: A
Jurisdiction = authority of a court to hear and decide. (B) = act of deciding; (C) = legal theory/philosophy; (D) = collective courts system.
Q25."Cognizance of"Ans: B
Correct collocation: "take cognizance of" — not "on."
Q26."Charged with"Ans: A
"Charged with" = accused of (e.g., charged with infringement/theft). "Charged for" usually denotes financial billing.
Q27."Throw in the towel"Ans: B
Boxing idiom: signal of giving up → concede defeat and give up.
Q28."Pyrrhic victory"Ans: C
From King Pyrrhus, whose battle wins cost him so dearly that he could not afford another — a victory won at such heavy cost that the winner is effectively ruined.
Q29."Gild the lily"Ans: A
From Shakespeare's King John — to add unnecessary ornamentation to something already beautiful.
Q30.Actus non facit reum...Ans: B
Classic common-law maxim: the act alone is not guilty unless the mind is also guilty — requires both actus reus and mens rea.
Section 25(3) Contract Act recognises a written, signed promise to pay a time-barred debt as an exception to the consideration rule. Virendra's 2024 letter exactly fits. Section 25(3), Indian Contract Act, 1872.
Q32.Counter-offer terminates originalAns: B
Rohan's 5 April reply added a condition (carrying case) — a counter-offer. A counter-offer destroys the original offer; it cannot later be "un-done." The 8 April letter is a fresh offer. Hyde v. Wrench (1840); Section 7 Contract Act.
Q33.Frolic vs. detourAns: B
A 45-km personal side-trip is a substantial deviation for a wholly personal purpose — a frolic, not a mere detour. Employer not vicariously liable. Storey v. Ashton (1869); Joel v. Morison.
Q34.Unsoundness of mindAns: B
Under Section 84 IPC / McNaghten rules, the test is whether the accused was incapable of knowing her act was wrong or contrary to law. Acute psychotic delusions destroy that capacity. Mechanical post-act steps (concealment) do not defeat the defence where clear psychiatric evidence of a delusional episode exists. Section 84 IPC; McNaghten's Case (1843).
Q35.Doctrine of eclipseAns: B
Doctrine of eclipse applies to pre-Constitution laws and revives them prospectively from the date the constitutional inconsistency is removed. Bhikaji Narain Dhakras v. State of M.P. (1955).
Q36.Urgency + post-decisional hearingAns: B
Genuine public-health urgency justifies dispensing with pre-decisional notice; a meaningful post-decisional hearing can cure the procedural gap. Maneka Gandhi v. Union of India; Swadeshi Cotton Mills v. Union of India.
Q37.Affirmation bars rescissionAns: B
Once the party with knowledge of the misrepresentation elects to affirm (words or conduct), the right to rescind is lost. Sameer's statement "I'll keep it anyway" with knowledge is clear affirmation. Clough v. LNWR; Section 19, Contract Act.
Q38.Excess of common intentionAns: C
Section 34 IPC requires a meeting of minds. The agreed intention here was to "beat up" — not to kill. Arjun's stone was a new, individual act exceeding that shared plan; he alone is liable for the fatal blow. Bheem's liability is confined to the agreed assault. Mahbub Shah v. Emperor.
Q39.Foreseeability in medical negligenceAns: C
The doctor met the ordinary GP standard. A 1-in-2,00,000 condition not screened for in routine practice is not reasonably foreseeable; duty/breach fail. Bolam v. Friern Hospital; Jacob Mathew v. State of Punjab.
Q40.Crime-fraud exceptionAns: B
Legal professional privilege has a well-established crime-fraud exception: communications in furtherance of fraud, or where the lawyer's services are sought to complete an already-committed fraud, are not privileged. Section 126 proviso, Evidence Act.
Q41.Restraint of trade — other exceptionsAns: C
A is correct. R is incorrect — the sale-of-goodwill carve-out is only one statutory exception; further exceptions exist under the Partnership Act (e.g., among retiring partners). Hence A true, R false.
Q42.Rylands — has exceptionsAns: C
A is correct. R is wrong: Rylands v. Fletcher strict liability admits several recognised exceptions — act of God, plaintiff's default, plaintiff's consent, act of a stranger, statutory authority. Indian absolute liability under M.C. Mehta admits no exceptions but is a distinct Indian rule.
Q43.Maxims matchAns: A
Direct pairings: 1-X (Volenti...), 2-W (Res judicata), 3-Z (Ubi jus...), 4-Y (Falsus in uno...).
Q44.Colourable legislationAns: B
I is wrong (applies to any legislature). IV is wrong — motive is irrelevant; only substance matters. Only II and III are correct. K.C. Gajapati Narayan Deo v. State of Orissa.
Q45.Thin-skull ruleAns: C
Once a foreseeable kind of injury (a burn) is caused, the defendant takes the victim as he finds him and is liable for the full extent — even the fatal cancer that resulted from the unusual pre-existing condition. Smith v. Leech Brain & Co. (1962).
Q46.Hadley v. BaxendaleAns: B
Direct/ordinary damages (weekly profits) are recoverable. The ₹3 lakh wedding contract, being special and undisclosed, was not within the parties' contemplation — hence irrecoverable. Hadley v. Baxendale (1854); Section 73, Contract Act.
Q47.Exceeding private defenceAns: B
A minor push and bag-snatch does not reasonably cause apprehension of death or grievous hurt, and does not fall within the specified offences that justify lethal force. Savita exceeded the right — liable for culpable homicide not amounting to murder. Sections 100, 99 IPC; Exception 2 to Section 300 IPC.
Q48.Article 15(3) / Reasonable classificationAns: B
Sex is an intelligible differentia; safety and mobility concerns of women are a valid gender-specific object with clear rational nexus. Article 15(3) expressly permits special provisions for women, which insulates this classification. Government of AP v. P.B. Vijayakumar; Anuj Garg v. Hotel Association.
Q49.Ostensible authority fails with noticeAns: B
The firm is not bound where the third party knows of the restriction on a partner's authority. Kapil's awareness of the public notice withdrawing Anand's borrowing authority defeats the ostensible-authority doctrine. Sections 19, 20, 27, Partnership Act, 1932.
Q50.Basic structureAns: B
I is wrong — Kesavananda expressly limits amending power vis-a-vis basic structure. II, III, IV are correct. Kesavananda Bharati v. State of Kerala (1973); Indira Nehru Gandhi v. Raj Narain; Minerva Mills.
Q51.Fair comment vs. factual allegationAns: B
"In my opinion, incompetent administrator" is recognisably opinion and protected if bona fide on a matter of public interest. "Accepted a bribe of ₹50 lakh last month" is a specific factual assertion — fair comment does NOT cover false statements of fact. The journalist must plead truth or another defence. Kemsley v. Foot.
Q52.Quasi-contract — Section 70Ans: B
All requirements of Section 70 Contract Act are satisfied: Harish acted lawfully, not gratuitously, and Shyam enjoyed the benefit. Quasi-contractual obligation to pay reasonable compensation arises. State of W.B. v. B.K. Mondal.
Q53.Abetment by instigationAns: B
An active taunt — "if you had any courage..." — specifically designed to provoke a violent response is instigation in law. That goes beyond mere presence and squarely attracts Section 107 IPC abetment. Section 107, IPC.
Q54.Legitimate expectation — hearingAns: B
A clear public commitment (2019 circular) generates a legitimate expectation of renewal. While fiscal constraints may justify ultimate withdrawal, procedural fairness demands at least a pre-decisional hearing. Union of India v. Hindustan Development Corp.; FCI v. Kamdhenu Cattle Feed Industries.
Q55.Dying declarationAns: B
Section 32(1) Evidence Act admits dying declarations as to the cause of death. V's statement to the police officer is a classic dying declaration, admissible without mandatory corroboration (though courts often seek it for safety). Section 32(1), Evidence Act; K.R. Reddy v. Public Prosecutor.
Q56.Minor's contractAns: B
A is correct (Mohori Bibee v. Dharmodas Ghose, Section 11 Contract Act). R is also correct (post-majority ratification of a void minor's contract is not allowed; a fresh agreement with fresh consideration is required). But R describes a consequence, not the REASON for A — A's reason is incapacity, not the ratification rule. Hence "both true, R does NOT correctly explain A" → (B).
Q57.Nuisance — statutory noise limitsAns: B
Exceeding statutory noise limits at a residential boundary is prima facie unreasonable interference. "Coming to the nuisance" is not a defence. Sturges v. Bridgman; Noise Pollution (Regulation & Control) Rules, 2000.
Q58.Postal ruleAns: B
Under Section 4 Contract Act, acceptance is complete as against the offeror on posting. Contract was concluded on 4 June at 9 a.m. The 11 a.m. revocation on the same day is ineffective — it post-dates the acceptance's posting. Adams v. Lindsell (1818); Section 4, Contract Act.
Judicial review is a basic structure feature; High Court powers under Article 226 and Supreme Court powers under Article 32 cannot be ousted by ordinary amendment. L. Chandra Kumar v. Union of India; Minerva Mills.
Section C — IPR Law · Detailed Solutions (Q.61 – Q.100)
Q61.Patent termAns: B
Post-2005 amendment, Section 53 Patents Act — 20 years from the date of filing (not from grant). This harmonises Indian patent term with TRIPS Article 33.
Q62.Section 3(d) — NovartisAns: B
Section 3(d) requires enhancement of therapeutic efficacy for new forms of known substances. The Supreme Court in Novartis AG v. Union of India (2013) held bioavailability alone is insufficient; therapeutic efficacy is the benchmark.
Q63.Bayer-Natco parallelAns: B
All three Section 84 grounds are satisfied: (i) reasonable public requirement not met (only 2% supply); (ii) not reasonably affordable (₹2,80,000/month); (iii) not worked in India (mere import). This mirrors Bayer Corporation v. Natco Pharma (2012) — India's first post-TRIPS compulsory licence.
Q64.Anticipation savingsAns: C
Sections 29-34 Patents Act list savings against anticipation — exhibition display (s.31), Government communication (s.30), public working by reasonable trial (s.32), use after provisional specification (s.33). A competitor's publication three months before filing is prior art that DESTROYS novelty — not a saving.
Q65.Section 8 foreign filingsAns: B
Section 8 mandates disclosure to the Controller of corresponding foreign patent applications for the same/substantially same invention — both at filing and during prosecution. Failure is a ground for revocation under Section 64(1)(m).
Q66.Bolar — Section 107AAns: B
Section 107A(a) expressly protects acts "solely for uses reasonably related to development and submission of information required under any law regulating manufacture/sale of products." Bioequivalence studies for eventual regulatory filing fall squarely within this.
Q67."Mark" definitionAns: C
Section 2(zb) TM Act includes (A), (B) and (D). A geographical indication of origin functioning as a generic name for a class of goods lacks distinctiveness and is not a "mark" (a distinctive GI is separately protected under the GI Act).
Q68.TM registration termAns: B
Section 25 TM Act — 10 years from the date of application, renewable indefinitely for further 10-year periods.
Q69.Passing off — trinityAns: B
Fifteen years' use across 40 cities with media reputation establishes goodwill. Deceptively similar name + trade dress = misrepresentation causing confusion. Customer complaints + likely damage = damage. All three limbs satisfied. Reckitt & Colman v. Borden; Cadila Healthcare v. Cadila Pharmaceuticals.
Q70.Well-known markAns: B
Section 11(2) TM Act — a well-known mark enjoys cross-class protection even on dissimilar goods, where use would indicate a connection with the proprietor and be detrimental to the mark's distinctive character or reputation.
Q71.Absolute groundsAns: A
I ("SOFT" for towels) and III ("PURE WATER" for drinking water) are descriptive of the character/quality of the goods — refused under Section 9(1)(b). II ("APPLE" for computers) is arbitrary and registrable. IV ("XEROX") was once a valid mark; a new independent use is barred on relative (not absolute) grounds. So I and III only.
Q72.Cadila — phonetic similarityAns: B
Marks applied to pharmaceuticals are judged by an especially strict standard because of potential medical harm. "CADILLA" and "CADILA" are phonetically and visually nearly identical, applied to similar goods — classic infringement. Cadila Healthcare v. Cadila Pharmaceuticals (2001).
Q73.Copyright termAns: B
Section 22 Copyright Act — Life + 60 years (not 50 as in Berne minimum, and not 70 as in US/EU).
Q74.Fair dealingAns: B
Section 52(1)(a) Copyright Act expressly permits fair dealing for criticism or review. A short extract used to illustrate a literary review is a textbook example. (A), (C) and (D) are clear infringements.
Q75.Author of cinematograph filmAns: C
Section 2(d)(v) Copyright Act — the "author" of a cinematograph film is the producer. (Common trap: intuitively many say director, but Indian law specifies producer.)
Q76.Idea-expression dichotomyAns: B
Copyright protects expression, not ideas. Common themes, plots, settings (detective, wedding, murder) are in the public domain. Only particular sequences, dialogue, expression are protected. R.G. Anand v. Deluxe Films.
Q77.Section 57 Moral rightsAns: B
Section 57 grants two "special rights": (i) right of paternity — to claim authorship; (ii) right of integrity — to restrain/claim damages for distortion, mutilation, modification or other act prejudicial to honour or reputation. They subsist independently of assignment of economic rights.
Q78.Design definitionAns: B
Section 2(d) Designs Act 2000 — design is limited to aesthetic features appealing to and judged solely by the eye; it expressly excludes mere mechanical devices and principles of construction (which are the province of patents).
Q79.Design termAns: B
Section 11 Designs Act — initial 10 years from registration, extendable by a further 5 years on application before expiry of the original term (total 15 years max).
Section 2(1)(e) GI Act — a GI identifies goods as originating in a territory where a given quality/reputation/characteristic is essentially attributable to that origin. It is a collective right — cannot be owned by a single individual.
Q82.Non-registered GIAns: D
Darjeeling Tea (India's first GI, 2004), Kanchipuram Silk, and Basmati Rice are all registered GIs. "Assam Fabric of Wool" is a fabricated/non-existent entry — actual Assam registrations include Muga Silk of Assam (not a wool-based fabric; Assam is not a wool-producing region).
Q83.GI termAns: B
Section 18 GI Act — 10 years, renewable for further 10-year periods indefinitely, similar to trade marks.
Q84.Paris priority — patentAns: B
Article 4 Paris Convention — 12 months priority for patents and utility models; 6 months for designs and trade marks.
Q85.PCT — unified procedureAns: B
The PCT does NOT grant a world patent. It provides a unified international procedure for filing, search and (optionally) preliminary examination; ultimate grant remains with each national/regional office. Administered by WIPO (not WTO).
Q86.PCT national phaseAns: C
National phase entry in India is within 31 months from priority date under the PCT Rules as adopted by India (most countries use 30/31 months).
Q87.TRIPSAns: B
TRIPS is annexed to the Marrakesh Agreement establishing the WTO (in force 1 January 1995) and sets minimum IP standards binding on all WTO members. It covers all major categories — patents, TMs, copyright, designs, GIs, trade secrets.
Q88.BerneAns: B
Berne Convention (1886) is the foundational international copyright treaty governing literary and artistic works; administered by WIPO. India joined Berne in 1928.
Q89.MadridAns: A
The Madrid System (Agreement 1891 + Protocol 1989) provides international registration of trademarks through a single application designating multiple member countries. India joined via the Protocol in 2013.
Q90.Pre-grant oppositionAns: A
Section 25(1) Patents Act — "any person" may file pre-grant opposition by way of representation after publication under Section 11A and before grant. Post-grant opposition under Section 25(2) is available only to "any person interested."
Q91.Non-patentableAns: B
Section 3 Patents Act excludes: I (mental acts, s.3(m)), II (computer programmes per se, s.3(k)), IV (medical treatment, s.3(i)). III is patentable — a new chemical compound with demonstrated industrial application is a classic patentable invention.
Q92.TM assignmentAns: B
Sections 37-38 TM Act permit assignment with OR without the goodwill of the business (a major change from the 1958 Act), subject to statutory conditions to prevent consumer confusion.
Q93.Copyright assignmentAns: B
Section 19(1) Copyright Act — assignment must be in writing, signed by the assignor or his duly authorised agent. Registration is not mandatory for validity (though it gives evidentiary advantage).
Q94.Revocation groundsAns: D
Section 64 Patents Act lists specific grounds — lack of novelty, obviousness, insufficient description, false suggestion, non-patentable subject matter, etc. "Excessive profits" is NOT a ground for revocation (though it may trigger compulsory licensing under Section 84).
Q95.Trans-border reputationAns: B
Indian courts in N.R. Dongre v. Whirlpool (1996) and Milmet Oftho v. Allergan (2004) recognised that reputation of well-known marks can spill over borders through advertising, media, and travel even without physical sales in India. Passing-off protection is available.
Q96.Form 27 working statementAns: B
Rule 131 Patents Rules (as amended 2020) — patentees and licensees must file Form 27 working statements once every financial year, within six months from the end of the financial year.
Q97.Computer programs as literary worksAns: B
Section 2(o) Copyright Act defines "literary work" to include computer programmes, tables and compilations including computer databases. Software is therefore protected as a literary work under Indian copyright law.
Q98.Treaties matchAns: A
1-X Budapest Treaty (deposit of microorganisms); 2-W Madrid Protocol (international TM registration); 3-Z Berne Convention (copyright); 4-Y Paris Convention (industrial property).
Q99.Section 39 violationAns: B
Section 39 bars Indian residents from filing foreign patent applications without either (i) prior written permission from the Controller, or (ii) a six-week wait after filing the same invention in India. Dr. Veena did neither. Consequences: possible deemed abandonment under Section 40, and penalties under Section 118 (imprisonment up to 2 years and/or fine).
Q100.Domain names & TMsAns: A
I, II, IV are correct — cybersquatting is actionable (Yahoo! Inc. v. Akash Arora; Rediff.com v. Radiff); Indian courts have applied passing-off (Satyam Infoway v. Sifynet Solutions); INDRP is the .IN administrative remedy. III is wrong — a descriptive domain can acquire distinctiveness through use and become protectable (e.g., mdindia.com, sifynet.com). So I, II, IV only → (A).
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